His own source, Pew, finds Israeli Jews split almost evenly: 45% Ashkenazi, 48% Sephardi or Mizrahi

He cites “Pew Research Center” as his citation for MOST Jews being Middle Eastern. But his own citation that he gave for proof literally says Jews are nearly evenly split and Ashkenazim 45 percent, Sephardim and Mizrahim 48 percent. So your OWN citation says “evenly split” or less than “evenly split” at 48% Middle Eastern for Sephardim or Mizrahim and 50-50 for the rest. How is that “mostly”?

He says Jews were exiled from their land after failed revolts. Then he says the remaining indigenous population converted to Christianity and Islam and stayed indigenous. There was no deportation of the Jews of Palestine after the revolts of 66-73 CE or 132-135 CE. Many converted to Christianity in the Byzantine period and to Islam under the Umayyads. The simplest proof is chronological: a mass expulsion in 70 CE can’t be squared with a mass Judean revolt in 132.

The Cinderella passage is a strawman. Nobody serious argues that pogroms transformed Mizrahi Jews into Europeans.

“All 613 except for those associated with monotheism originated as tribal customs indigenous to the Levant” no such analysis exists in a form that supports all 613.

First published in my Quora debunk archive.