The Jewish kingdoms were often vassals, and Canaanite city-states came before them

Start it 200 years earlier and you’re in Canaanite city-states. Start it at 1200 BCE and the Merneptah Stele shows “Israel” as one people among others in a Canaanite landscape, not the sole owner.

And the “independent Jewish states” you refer to, are not as independent as you claim as they were repeatedly vassals paying tribute to Assyria and Egypt before being destroyed. Claiming that having control over a people by force equates their lack of existence is the literal definition of Ethnic Cleansing.

“Britain’s plan was to divide up the land so each group would control part. Jews accepted the plan. Arabs didn’t.” The British took over control of Palestine from the Ottomans by military conquest in 1917. Under international law at that point Britain was a belligerent occupant aka a military occupier, which has no power to transfer sovereignty or hand out title to the land.

The Mandate made Britain an administrator (a trustee governing the territory “until such time as they are able to stand alone,” explicitly taking into account the wishes of the inhabitants. It was not sovereign. In 1919, the King-Crane Commission, sent by the Allies, recorded that the population overwhelmingly opposed the Zionist project.

First published on Quora: my original debunk.